Thanks for pointing it out guys! Here’s the revised version:
EQUITY METHOD:
Full Goodwill –> Fair Value - Book Value of Net Identifiable assets (same under IFRS and US GAAP)
_ Equity reminds me of Book Value_
And then we allocate the above calculated difference (i.e. the excess purchase price) to subsidiary’s those assets whose fair values exceed their book values. What we get after allocation is the goodwill which is essentially same as the difference between subsidiary’s fair value and parent’s proportionate share of net identifiable assets.
ACQUISITION METHOD:
F ull Goodwill –> F air value - F air Value of Net Identifiable assets (same under IFRS and US GAAP)
P artial Goodwill –> P urchase P rice - P arents P roportionate share of Net Identifiable Assets (only under IFRS)
So its FF under F ull goodwill and PPPP under P artial goodwill
Equity method you take purchase price less acquiror’s share of BOOK VALUE of EQUITY less amount of excess (i.e. fair value - book) attributed to tangible assets. Purchase - Fair value is not entirely accurate. That just determines excess for the tangible assets. Plus if any intangibles you would need to account for that. The rest of purchase price allocated to book value of equity.
The 2011 Mock Q44 AM makes this crystal clear. If that is wrong and there is documented proof please share so we can all be confident in the answer since this topic will for sure be tested.
Investment in associate(acquiring between 20 to 50% of the target)
Same treatment under IFRS and US GAAP:
Goodwill =
(Purhase price - Fair value of the Net asset of the associate * % acquired) - (Fair value of Net asset of associate - Book value of its Net assets) * % acquired
Im not sure I understand what you’re saying. But I just had a look at Q44 and redid the question and got it right based on my method. You report the investment account at purchase price which includes $273,000 of Goodwill. That $273,000 comes from excess of purchase price over FV of NIA (Purchase price = $1,365,000 minus ($3,360,000 x 32.5% = $1,092,000) = $273,000. [Notice how I’ve determined goodwill, just like in the answer sheet, without using book value of anything…]
At that point, the only reason you care about previous book value is to depreciate identifiable assets that you have “written up”. In this case, you’ve written up the assets you bought by $234,000 (this is NOT goodwill) and must now deduct 1/10 of that amount as depreciation (less the portion attributable to land as land is not depreciable) from the 2008 NET INCOME allocation of Great Lakes.
In this case, you wrote up $234,000 of assets but only depreciate based on $222,300 (don’t depreciate gain on land). That amount divided by 10 gives you $22,230.
The answer is achieved by looking at purchase price $1,365,000 less depreciation $22,230 plus our share of NI $390,000 less our share of dividends paid $163,800 = $1,568,970.
It’s a bit late, hope you finally had your L2 (the same for ff8789 that was so happy about your memo technique) but you had it wrong on an enormiouse mess (this is why I am taking the time):
Equity method correction
No existence of differentiation between Full/Partial on Equity method. I would say only the partial exist.
Then your original post is completely out => FV - BV … as for definition Goodwill is excess Purchase Price (PP) over FV. Where is the PP on your equation?
Then your two corrective frases. For the first => right regarding the excess PP of assets taken out of a first step calculated goodwill using PP - %Share*BV. For the second => false, this is what your frase calculates: FV - %Share*BV. Again no PP… I think what you meant was:
Its true, seems a bit a complication for nothing but this might be nessesary when you have to depretiate the ammount allocated to depreciable assets.
Aquisition Method:
FULL GOODWILL
There it is missleading! The CFA text uses “fair value of the aquisition” specifing “FV of consideration given” which I think is simply the PP considering you bought 100% of the target, lets call it TPP. So to calculate it I would go for:
TPP = PP / %Share
Considering you are aquiring the target company you will report all the Equity accounting for a minority stake to complete the Equity in case you didn’t bought a 100% of the target. On the Assets and Liabilities you report them ALL even if bought less than 100% at FV. And there we should have an add in the balance of: