well since no payments are due , it is potential credit risk…
so if a bank gave a loan for payment in 1 year and nothing is due till then, the bank is facing potential credit risk…
now in the case of the forward, that risk is the value of the position, and the one facing it is the person who would receive such payment if the parties agreed to settle the contract right then for some reason, or if there was bankruptcy, i think i read many time in CFAI curr that in case of bankruptcy what is owed for the forward would be the amount at time of bankruptcy, ie the contract is killed right then regrdless of what the prices are later