All correct: in particular, the deferred taxes shows up in tax expense (which is higher), thus reducing net income.
Final questions (I hope!): Do you reduce Owner’s Equity by the amount in Deferred Taxes (i.e., do you use $1,664,000, or ($1,664,000 – $86,000))? Why or why not?

Furthermore, please let me know if the points below are accurate as it reflects my current understanding:
- the difference in net equity (assets - liabilities) that is reflected between year 1 and year 2 of the Balance Sheet is completely explained by the Income Statement. The net income from the Income Statement should completely account for any differences in total equity between the two years on the Balance Sheet.
Not quite.
Equity = Preferred Stock (at par) + Common Stock (at par) + Other Contributed Capital + Retained Earnings + Other Comprehensive Income – Treasury Stock (+ Minority Interest)
So, Equity can change if any of these things happen:
- If the company issues new Preferred Stock: Equity will increase
- If the company issues new Common Stock: Equity will increase
- If the company has Other Comprehensive Income (e.g., a unrealized gain or loss on Available-For-Sale Securities (which doesn’t go through the income statement)): Equity will change (could go up or down)
- If the company repurchases its own stock on the open market, increasing Treasury Stock: Equity will decrease
- (Let’s ignore Minority Interest)
- If Retained Earnings changes: Equity will change (could go up or down; up is more likely)
What causes Retained Earnings to change?
- Net Income is added to Retained Earnings
- Dividends Declared are subtracted from Retained Earnings
In short, lots of things other than Net Income can change Equity.

- The Cash Flow statement obviously explains the actual cash flow of the company. Related to the other statements, it ignores all the deferred payments, differed receivables, depreciations, and other non-cash adjustments and completely explains the “cash difference” between year 1 and year 2 of the Balance Sheet.
That’s correct.

While we are on topic about these statements, I have another question which is confusing me a bit related to Free Cash Flow:
One of the formulas provided is: FCFF = CFO + [Interest x (1 - tax rate)] - FCInv
CFO = cash flow from operations, Interest = interest expense, FCInv = fixed capital investment
Now in this FCFF formula, we don’t substract any “working capital investment” (WCI). Substantially, this makes sense. [WCI = current assets - current liabilities]. In calculating CFO from net income (indirect method), we add liabilities (e.g. wages payable) and subtract non cash assets (e.g. accounts receivable). Therefore, many components of WCI is already subtracted from net income to get CFO - subtracting WCI again will be double counting for many items.
However, what about the “cash” aspect of working capital investment? Lets say that current assets is largely “cash” due to the company expecting some unforeseen circumstances. Therefore, WCI is largely made up of this stockpile of cash. This cash asset will NOT be subtracted from net income in calculating CFO (unlike accounts receivable) - since it’s cash. However, we want to retain this amount in the company without distributing it out based on the FCFF calculation. e.g. the management feels that it is absolutely necessary to keep $1M on hand for something crazy that might happen, but in calculating CFO from net income using the indirect method, this cash is not subtracted. However, it needs to be subtracted before calculating FCFF since we DON’T want to distribute it and want to retain it. How can this be accomodated in the above FCFF formula?
I’d encourage you to put these in a separate thread, so that this thread doesn’t lose its focus.

As always, many thanks!
Happy to be of help.