Scholars,
Is my understand of this topic correct ?
- If Investor faces restriction on borrowing or lending at Risk-free rate, then his optimal portfolio is determined by the classic 2 Corner Portfolio procedure
- If, however, he can borrow or lend at Risk-free rate, then his optimal portfolio is the tangency portfolio which is the highest-Sharpe-ratio portfolio ; the investor’s optimal portfolio is on the CAL, which is further split into 2 cases :
- If Investor’s Return Objective > Return of tangency portfolio, the investor then borrows at Risk-free rate to leverage the tangency portfolio
- If Investor’s Return Objective < Return of the tangency portfolio , the investor combines the Risk-free rate (lends) and the Tangency Portfolio
Is this correct ? I think it pretty much is.
Last question : are there cases when lending / borrowing at the Risk-Free rate is allowed, but it is still optimal to not use the tangency portfolio ?