in 2010 AM session the first question, PART B and the second question about required rate the answer is capital base = 225,000 I have no idea about how this figures come? why not all TDA asset = 250,000 minus education fee = 50,000 and the capital base = 200,000 can anyone help me? thanks!
I have the same question…
Bumping this. I don’t get it either. Its a one-time expense so shouldn’t it be subtracted out of the investable asset base?
it says in the paragraph before part B that the TDA balance is 225,000 after a year has passed and the children’s education costs have been paid. she put in 25,000 after taking out 50,000.
Alright didn’t read it well enough. Thank you for the clarification.
sorry, I see that. my fault to ignore the most important data…