How are we supposed to know that the risk-free rate given already pertains to the 60-day period and shouldn’t be annualized? I assumed it was given as an annualized figure, then adjusted it to 0.487% over 60 days (via 1.03^(60/365) - 1)
Was this principle stated in any of the LOSs (perhaps in 2012 but not 2013 curriculum) or it’s just something we have to “know” even without it being stated in the curriculum?