2015 am - Litman - Question 47 on Tactical Asset Allocation

What they hell does “The weighted foreign currency exposure of our equities and fixed income mirrors the USD index” mean? The answer say that you would decrease exposure to the developed market equities and fixed income because the USD is expected to increase 3% versus weighted currencies in the portfolio. I just don’t understand what they are doing - are they just matching the weight of the portfolio to USD given the strength of the currency, so that if the USD increases in value then they decrease the weight of other developed markets?