A strange ethics question, need help

Standard having to do with priority of transactions states that transactions in accounts for which they are a benefical owner should not be undertaken until their clients and employers have had a adequate opportunity to act on it. Then it goes on to say family accounts should not be advantaged or disadvantaged. What does it mean, they both seem to be saying 2 difft things

if the family pay for service like every other client you treat them equally to everyone else

beneficial owner - your own account, spouse, or child all other family accounts should be treated fairly with the others.

well , for your personal account, u shouldn’t act for yourself until u act for all your clients, but with regard to the accounts of your family, u must treat them as normal clients don’t prefer them over your clients, but also don’t make them the last one to act. u got it!

so your father would not be a beneficial account because he isnt included as an immediate family member

okay i think i’ll settle for the last explanation