5 years ago, the firm issued $10 in debt at par with a coupon rate of 20%. The firm has now decided to issue another $10 in debt with a coupon rate of 10% at par. The firm has no other debt outstanding and a tax rate of 40%. The appropriate after-tax cost of debt is:
a) 18%
b) 6%
c) 12%
OA is B but I chose a. I thought that I would average the yields and then calculate after-tax, which is wrong. Can someone please explain why this is wrong?
I’d appreciate any help.