If βdebt = 0, then
(B)asset = (B) equity [1 / 1 + ((1-t) * d/e))
market risk of equity is affected by the asset’s market risk and a factor representing the nondiversifiable portion of the company’s financial risk
(B)equity = (B)asset [1 + ((1-t) * d/e)
Company A has equity beta of 1.5, D/E = 0.4, marginal tax = 30%. Asset beta:
(B)asset = (B) equity [1 / 1 + ((1-t) * d/e))
(B)asset = 1.5
beta = 1.5 [1 / 1 + (1-30%) * 40%] = 1.1719
If the company did not have debt financing, (B)asset = (B)equity = 1.1719. Debt financing increases its (B)equity from 1.1719 to 1.5. What woul equity beta be if the D/E ratio were 0.5 and not 0.4? So my two questions are as follows: a.) when the book says that the debt financing increases (B)equity from 1.1719 to 1.5, how is that? It appears that (B)equity is 1.5 and therefore, the (B) of the asset is 1.1719. Maybe I’m jsut misunderstanding the wording… b.) when the book asks you to find the (B)equity if the D/E ratio is 0.5, not 0.4, why does the book use:
(B)equity = 1.1719 [1 + ((1-30%)*(50%)) = 1.5821
As opposed to using the original formula and plugging in the new D/E ratio?
Thanks!
[1+−t
DE