Can anyone explain why it’s not C) a violation of Fair Dealing for not making recommendation to all clients?
I also got that wrong, having put C for that same reason.
it is not a violation of fair dealing because it may not be suitable to recommend this ipo to all clients. If it said he determined it suitable for some but that he only recommended to a selection of that some then that would be a violation. **Edit: at least I think thats why.
agreed…i thought about this a lot too… and came down the explanation that slouis porivded… because it said “all clients” i didn’t chose it…
I think it may also have to do with the fact that its impossible to relay the info to all clients at the same time
Thanks.