Guys,
It see when i am using the NPV function in the BA II Plus calculator (for calculating the present valuing of lease payments)- it gives me the same figure whether its in BGN or END mode…
Can somebody pls confirm.
So, say CF1 = 5, CF2=10, I=6% , NPV (BGN) = 13.616
So, say CF1 = 5, CF2=10, I=6% , NPV (END) = 13.616
It seems that when the problem asks for BGN , i will have to use the Annuity formula (as provided in the CFA mock solution)