Calculation of PMT

Hi all,

Suppose a 30-year, $200,000 mortgage loan is taken from bank charging 6% interest, with annual compounding. What are the 30 year-end payments?

I know how to calculate it with the caluclator and the correct answer is $14,529.78.
But how do I do it without the calculator? Is there any formula I missed?

PV = 200,000
i = 0,06 p.a.
n = 30

Isn’t there any solution to get it by pen and paper? :slight_smile:

Cheers
Teemo

Not one that you’re going to want to try to use:

PMT = \frac{iPV\left(i + i\right)^n}{\left(1 + i\right)^n - 1}
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They LET you bring in a calculator. It will be your only friend during the exam!!! :+1:

All you have to do is set the cash-flow diagram, and it should be pretty straight-forward from there.
Knowing how to set the diagram can be particularly valuable when the cash-flow is significantly more complex (one example being rainbow annuities or something, can’t recall the exact term). Essentially the amount paid changes with time, instead of being fixed.

Thank you so much!
I just want to correct (1+i) in the numerator.

Not to use in the exam just for understanding :slight_smile:
It is not that difficult.

Cheers
Teemo

How? If I don’t know neither the principal nor the overall amount paid at year-end.

The problem assumes you are paying a fixed amount at the end of each year.
Here:

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By the way, I strongly recommend you learn how to set the time diagram. It will prove to be far more useful and versatile than memorizing a shortcut formula, and then forgetting it the day after the exam.
It’s also far more intuitive as well, as you can see from the solution given above.

And don’t forget to set P/Y, C/Y and BEG/END correctly!!! :+1:

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Thank you for your effort!
So I use the “standard” geometric sum. :ok_hand:

sorry for asking again.
Is there a way to calculate the PMT with payments at the beginning of each year?
How do I adjust the formula?

Divide the RHS by (1+i) in s2000magician’s formula.

On the calculator: 2nd PMT 2nd SET will let you toggle between BEG and END.

ETA: Answer using BEG is 13,707.34

how to do it with calculator?

With the BAII

2nd PMT to make sure you have END
2nd Quit
2nd I/Y
1 P/Y Enter :arrow_down:, 1 C/Y Enter
2nd Quit
2nd FV to clear the TVM registers
30 N 6 I PV 200,000 FV 0 CPT PMT -14,529.7823