When I was calculating WACC, I use (FV of Debt + FV of equity) to get the Total Capital of capital but in this case we will ignore some other current liability.
When we are calculating EVA. we need to use (BV of total liability + BV of total equity) to calculate Total Capital and get $WACC.
When we calculate MVA, we calculate Total Capital use (FV of Debt + FV of equity), again, and ignore other liability.
Am I right? I found these when i was doing Kaplan mock. I just feel that it is quite inconsistent. Why do we sometimes include the
Non-Debt liability while sometimes don’t?