Can anybody just elaborate this more
"When hedging a position, futures contracts are better if the hedge produces a positive cash flow, via marking-to-market, when interest rates rise and is hurt when interest rates fall. In this case, when interest rates rise and cause equity values to fall, a short futures position will receive a positive cash flow that can be reinvested at the higher rate. If interest rates fall, and the short futures position must be marked to market with a negative cash flow, the opportunity cost of the negative cash flow is lower. Forward contracts that do not require marking-to-market do not “benefit” from changes in interest rates. "