Can someone answer this question for me, and give a reason to the answer, please?

its c

What do you think the answer is?

Why?

(Hint: look at the 2022 Level I CFA curriculum, reading 46, §11.)

Its C

Derivatives are priced on the assumption of risk neutrality.
And binomial option pricing uses RFR (risk free rate)

More to the point, derivatives are priced to prevent arbitrage.