Hi guys,
I am a bit confused. If we have a 2 year cap with annual observations. Strike is 5%. Do we have a payoff on the first caplet? From what I understand, at time zero, the Libor 1Y is known which would mean that the payoff on the first caplet is known from inception. Is that correct? Or do we simply assume that the fixing is made at the end of the year?
Thanks for your help!