I haven’t seen the problem, but it appears that the total return is after everything: receiving the dividend and paying for the margin loan. Thus, to get the price appreciation, you have to remove the effect of receiving the dividend (by subtracting it) and paying the margin interest (by adding it).
I was debating about the total return. Is it normal to assume that the total return is after everything? I thought it was only price return (capital gain/loss) plus dividends?
It was tricky because one of the answers is with the margin loan cost and another without.
Expect that on the real exam. CFA Institute has been writing these exams a lot longer than anyone here has been studying for them (indeed, a lot longer than most of you have been alive!), so they know the most common mistakes you will make; the wrong answer choices reflect that knowledge.