I think this was discussed before but did CFAI miss an error? Page 686 Volume 4, Q15, shouldn’t the 28,800,000 be multipled by 1+g since since we used current year;s normalized income? They posted an errata for question 4 on these practice problems but may have missed this one.
There was a discussion going back 15 hours ago on this topic.
Must be PE review night - I was just looking at the exact same thing.
idreesz Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > There was a discussion going back 15 hours ago on > this topic. and what was the conclusion
Or at least what was the thread called? Can’t find it. Thanks.
the show NY Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > idreesz Wrote: > -------------------------------------------------- > ----- > > There was a discussion going back 15 hours ago > on > > this topic. > > > and what was the conclusion If mentioned in the question that normalized earnings for the most recent year/previous year then multiply by 1+g and if not then dont multiply. http://www.analystforum.com/phorums/read.php?12,1157825,1157907
just brought that post back from the dead