# CFAI MOCK 2013 - PM

For those who have done this mock;

I don’t see any where in the item set on derivatives (question 7- 13) where it says the payments on the currency swaps should be made semiannually.

The answer calculates the market value of the currency swap, assuming semi annual payments.

The question says the firm executes a 12 month fixed-to-fixed currency swap. So how do we know the payments are semi annual and not quarterly or monthly?

What am I missing??

Thanks.

Completely agree blinx, this had me stumped. In fact most of this exam was horrifically worded. The following section refers to “Gloucester” metrics/ratios etc when it is actually Rockport that is the company. I figure this mock may do more harm than good given a cost/benefit analysis on time spent working out what the heck a questionis actually asking.

yeah that seemed to be wording issue, hopefully real exam question would be much clear. The questions on derivatives were pretty difficult.

Ok. Glad everyone is on the same page on this one. I did ok on this mock but got destroyed on Equity and Derivatives, which are usually my strong areas.

Yes, this item set is extremely difficult and …confusing…

On the option question; If the index can move up 15% or down 20% then the size of the up move is 1.15 and the size of the down move should be (1/1.15 = 0.869) but the answer gives the size of the down move as

(1/1.2 = 0.8333).

I think the up and down moves are mutually inconsistent. Am I right?

Yea agreed re the down move. The way I think of it is just that if down move is given then I use that figure, eg in this case d=20% so 1/1.20 * index.

In every example of the reading on options, the up move has been given such that d = 1/u. Even when both moves are given the relation holds.

But not in the practice exams right? I’ve seen many Schwesser exams where just up move is given.

i checked back with CFAI text, the down move size is 0.8, many examples have shown.

hope S2000 can clarify this…

You use d=1/u when Down move is not mentioned but in question its mentioned down move is 20% so you will use that or can multiply by 0.8.

But the bionomial option theory is based on d=1/u, I think we should use it?