CFAI

Grading and Results Why have you made the change to the results report? We have changed the results report to provide more detailed guidance on candidate performance without reporting absolute scores (see below). Specifically, we wanted to provide failed candidates with information that might help them decide whether or not to continue in the CFA Program. We understand that the decision whether or not to continue in the CFA Program can be difficult, and we hope that failed candidates find this information useful. Why don’t candidates who pass the exam receive similar information? The score band information is intended to help failed candidates determine whether to continue in the CFA Program by giving them more detailed guidance on their performance. Reporting similar information to passing candidates would encourage classifications such as “high pass” and “low pass.” We consider such classifications counterproductive. =======================================================

Equity, is this for all levels??

i think soo…

CFAI rocks!

“counterproductive” ? … what does that mean ?

so their afraid of people quiting?

Becasue the pass rates are so low, I think it reasonable to assume that most failures will be near the 8-10 band (ie close to passing), thus making them dish out money once again for the test. $$$$$$ It’s not necessary for those who passed.

“Becasue the pass rates are so low, I think it reasonable to assume that most failures will be near the 8-10 band (ie close to passing)…” The conclusion does not follow from the premise.

I guess the opposite is true if you passed and your band is “1” :slight_smile:

So… i got a good laugh out of “21” movie i saw recently, especially the whole Newton-Raphson stuff. Good comic relief

newsmaker Wrote: ------------------------------------------------------- > “Becasue the pass rates are so low, I think it > reasonable to assume that most failures will be > near the 8-10 band (ie close to passing)…” > > The conclusion does not follow from the premise. Here’s my thinking, with only a 35% pass rate (not score), I’d think it is reasonable to assume that many were very close to passing… ie in the 8-10 bands. From my understanding the bands are not deciles, meaning an equal amount of failures in each band. So if the bands were predetermined based on actual scores, then many would be in the higher bands. From what I can tell on L1 forum, this is the case… many seemed very close to passing.

how do they compute the band?

Unconfirmed sources are claiming that 60% of the failures are in the first decile of the distribution … Well, I could do some creative things with VaR :stuck_out_tongue: LMAO