Change in value of collar

There is a question in one of the “applications of derivatives” practice tests that asks for the change in value of the collar when the options expire. I thought this was just the value of the collar. But in the answer, they calculate the profit of the collar. Why? In the readings there was a clear distinction between the value of an option at expiration and the profit of the option at expiration. What am I missing? Is it a mistake?

Meerily semantics IMO.