Changing recommandation based on opinion you overheard

Hey everyone

To me A and B are correct, but here is CFAI explanation below:

So i get it, B is correct because an analyst’s opinion is not adequate basis for action in changing a recommandation. A is incorrect, i don’t understand their explanation, so if he had heard the opinion, and it sparked him to conduct additional research and investigation, then it is OK to change the recommandation, however, changing it without conducting any additional research is also OK… Since answer A is incorrect.

Typically, when CFA Institute talks about distinguishing between fact and opinion, the opinion they mean is that of the potential violator, not the opinion of someone else on whom the potential violator is relying.

It’s a thin reed, but it’s really the only reed.

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