Clarification on goodwill vs excess of purchase price over BV

I understand the formulas for partial and full goodwill, and also excess purchase price over BV. But when a question asks us to calculate goodwill, which of these do we use? (Assuming question doesn’t say use partial goodwill, use full goodwill, doesn’t mention whether IFRS/GAAP is to be used and doesn’t mention fair value being above book value).

If they give you purchase price and BV, you can only assume BV = FV absent any other details