Hello fellow finance nerds, my question has to do with the paragraph below from official CFA text on Commodities:
"Oil futures markets are often backwardated; in these markets, futures prices are often below the current spot price. This may be caused by the existence of real options under uncertainty.68 A real option is an option involving decisions related to tangible assets or processes. In other words, producers are holding valuable real options—options to produce or not to produce—and will not exercise them unless the spot prices start to climb up. Production occurs only if discounted futures prices are below spot prices, and backwardation results if the risk of future prices is sufficiently high. "
My issue is with the last line, production only occurs if discounted futures prices are below spot prices. So I try to ratched that thought out with a scenario: I am a producer with an oil well in my back yard. today, oil is going for $100 a barrel (so that’s the spot price). Then I go on the internet, and see that futures prices on oil with an expiration of 1 month are $200 per barrel. I don’t care what discount rate you’re using, $200 a month from now is not going to be less than the $100 spot price. So according to this rule, I’m like “oh, looks like the discounted futures price is not below the spot price. I better not make those barrels until futures prices start coming down”. Seems like the opposite of what makes sense. Anyone care to explain what is wrong with my interpretation of this rule? I know it’s something, and I’ve clearly done a very literal interpretation of the rule, so they must mean something different than what I’ve understood…
Thanks in advance