Hi,
I was sure that capilizing interest was only allowed in the event of asset being constructed for firm’s own use. Therefore a bit puzzeled with the below question from analystnotes.com
Which of the below is true
A If firm is leveraged, capitalization of interest is required even if the debt is not directly related to the construction project
B caitalization of interest cost is limited to assets under construction for firm’s own use
C A firm cannot capitalize imputed interest cost if it is not leveraged.
Solution is C, though I would have guessed it’s B
Any ideas why C?
Thanks!