Confusing statement in Volume 5

On page 443 of Volume 5, right before the summary, the text states:
“For example, if two
call options on the same stock had different prices, but one had a longer expiration
and lower exercise price and the other had a shorter expiration and higher exercise,
which should be the higher priced option? It is impossible to tell on the surface.”

The thing is, if there are 2 calls on the SAME stock, and one of them has a LOWER strike price and LONGER time to expiration, then shouldn’t it clearly be the more valuable call option and thus priced higher? I.e., it is more easier to be in the money due to a lower strike price and there’s more time for the underlying stock to move into the money.

Why is it “impossible to tell on the surface”?

They seem to have goofed.

You should report that to CFA Institute as an error.