Confusion with CAPM/ Cost of Equity

Hey, I am a bit confused regarding how to calculate k, when provided a company’s beta, the risk-free rate, and market premium. Here is an example question:

'Pam Robers, CFA, is performing a valuation analysis on the common stock of Allstare Inc. The stock’s beta is 1.1, the risk-free rate is 5%, and the market risk premium is expected to be 8%. Allstare’s ROE is expected to be constant at 18%, and its dividend payout ratio has been fairly constant over time at 40%. The forward-earnings multiplier that Robers should use to estimate the current value of the shares is closest to:;

A) 13

I was under the impression that in order to calculate k, you have to do Rf + B(Rm-Rf) however I have seen in many circumstances, as well as in this answer that they only do Rf+B(Rm). Is someone able to clarify why this is the case?
Thank you!

When the question says “market risk premium” that means the number given to you already has the risk free rate subtracted. In other words:
Market risk premium = Rm-Rf

So when you have the market risk premium, you calculate k as k = rf + Beta(market risk premium)

If you are just given the return of the market, then your method of calculation is correct.

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Ahh, of course - a silly mistake to be making. Thank you!