Hi, i would be extremely grateful if you could walk me through exactly how to calculate the below question - totally lost here and truly hope it doesn’t come up! thanks so much in advance!
A portfolio manager has decided to pursue a contingent immunization strategy over a four-year time horizon. He just purchased at par $26 million worth of 6% semiannual coupon, 8-year bonds. Current rates of return for immunized strategies are 6% and the portfolio manager is willing to accept a return of 5%. Given that the required terminal value is $31,678,475, and if the immunized rates rise to 7% immediately, which of the following is most accurate? The dollar safety margin is:
A) negative (-$1,423,980) and the portfolio manager must switch to immunization. B) positive ($6,158,602) and the portfolio manager can continue with contingent immunization. C) positive ($370,765) and the portfolio manager can continue with contingent immunization
I was wondering if you get the same as the CFA page 37 v4 using the way you showed above. (rates go up to 5.8%). I cannot seem to get the 460.52 that they say they get.
rounding errors. depends on how your calculator is set. I get 460.54 I wouldn’t worry about it. In the exam the difference between answers will be clear.
Why do you use the immunized rate of return for the YTM when calculating the PV of assets? Unless I’m missing something, this is a poor worded question. If it says you purchased $26MM worth of bonds at par, isn’t the coupon the YTM? Isn’t your asset value 26MM so that you subtract the PV of liabilities from that 26MM for your dollar margin? I’m confused…