what is considered low correlation? referencing 2007 AM: inflation protected bonds : US Corp Bonds = .71 inflation protected bonds: US gov bonds = .80 the exam says that this low correlation justifies inflation prot. bonds as a separate asset class. is .80 really low enough to be considered a separate asset class?

boston it is disucussed in curriculum as an example of an asset that should be a separate asset class. Basically a gimme if you bother to read the books :slight_smile:

i thought the same thing – seems high, but from the answer I’d have to agree they think 80% is low enough to be considered “diversifying”. there is a specific blue box in the materials that talks about justifying TIPS as a separate asset class. damn if i can remember any of the details.

  1. heterogeneity of all TIPs instruments 2) Relatively low correlations with other classes 3) Affected by the different sets of economic conditions (real rates) vs nominal bonds (nominal rates)

i remember the tips thing…i actually got the question right on the practice exam. .8 just seems high to me.

Isn’t anything below 1 diversifying?, even though .8 is high, perhaps it still has sufficient diversification effect? I’m not sure about this but I think so.

i just finished reading the answer to part b where they say corp and gov are the same asset class because of a high correlation = .85. I know the aren’t separate asset classes but what I’ve learned from this is that you can define <=.80 = low, >.85 = high.

that’s a pretty fine hair for them to split… does that qualify as overconfidence bias?

Same thing as for willingness to take risk SF > 14% - Above average. SF < 12% - below average.