The book provides limited explaination on how this cost-basis formula would theortically apply to a real life situation.
Heres the formula
FVIFcgt, MV<>Basis = (1+R)^N(1-TCG) + TcgB
Where b = Cost Basis / Market Value
In what investing situation would the the ‘investment’ purchase price and cost basis differ? Is this formula trying to take into account situation where facevalue would differ from market? I.e, bonds trading a discount to Par.
The forumla is simple but I want to ensure i understand how this relates
I think I understand the basics of taxing capital gains but why do they provide two seperate formalas which results in basically the same answer? One simply assumes capital appreciation and the other doesn’t? Seems strange to me that they even bothered having two seperate sections in the book to explain both
Cost-Basis Taxing: (1+r)^n(1-Tcg) + B*Tcg
and
Deferred Capital Gains Taxing: (1+r)^n(1-Tcg) + Tcg