Who could explain me (a rookie who has no finance or any business-related background) the following paras more thoroughly and with simple words:
Professor’s Note: It is important that you realize that the cost of debt is the market interest rate (YTM) on new (marginal) debt, not the coupon rate on the firm’s existing debt. CFA Institute may provide you with both rates, and you need to select the current market rate. If a market YTM is not available because the firm’s debt is not publicly traded, the analyst may use the rating and maturity of the firm’s existing debt to estimate the before-tax cost of debt. If, for example, the firm’s debt carries a single-A rating and has an average maturity of 15 years, the analyst can use the yield curve for single-A rated debt to determine the current market rate for debt with a 15-year maturity. This approach is an example of matrix pricing or valuing a bond based on the yields of comparable bonds. If any characteristics of the firm’s anticipated debt would affect the yield (e.g., covenants or seniority), the analyst should make the appropriate adjustment to his estimated before-tax cost of debt. For firms that primarily employ floating-rate debt, the analyst should estimate the longer-term cost of the firm’s debt using the current yield curve (term structure) for debt of the appropriate rating category?
Thank you in advance and have a productive day!