All,
I am studying Account Receivables/ Payables chapter. I am not sure why Cost of trade credit = {1 + ( %discount/1-%discount)}^(365/days past discount).
My intuition is going against this formula. Hence, something is missing in my understanding. Here’s what I am thinking.
Let’s say Terms are 2/10 net 60. Therefore, I will get 2% discount if I pay outstanding amount within 10 days, and 0% discount if I pay the outstanding amount within 60 days but greater than 10 days.
Let’s assume that $100 is due. Hence, within 10 days, I will earn $2 interest. I can also think of this as $2 = cost of not paying outstanding amount in the first 10 days. In other words, it’s the cost of paying $100 between 11th and 60th day. Therefore, the cost = 2/100 for 50 days. Now this could be easily annualized using the classic formula :
(1+2%)^(365/50) — The interest portion in this formula is very different from the actual formula. I am not sure why (1-%discount) is in the denominator.
Can someone please help me? I would really appreciate your help. Thanks in advance.
Best regards