Credit analysis model | Term structure of credit spreads

Hi all,
I am confused of this paragraph in curriculum

“if a portfolio manager disagrees with the market’s expectation of
a high near-term default probability that declines over time, she could sell short-term
protection in the credit default swap market and buy longer-term protection. In
a scenario where the issuer does not default, the investor retains the premium on
protection sold and may either retain or choose to sell back the longer-term credit
default swap to realize a gain”

As i understand, market expects near-term default probability to decline. the manager believes that the opposite is true = short term default probality will increase.

In my opinion, If she believes the short term bonds will be riskier, she should buy short-term protection instead of selling one.