I am having troubling understanding something I read this morning and I was hoping some of the derivatives experts here could shed some light on it:
“Time spreads in Brent and oil products have strengthened, not weakened, and weakening times preads are characteristic of demand-driven price declines.”
When time spreads are strengthening, the difference in spread is greater, correct? Could that be a positive or negative difference depending on whether we are in backwardation or contango?
So, the guy argues that it must be a supply driven price decline but why?
A weakening time spread due to slow demand would mean prices in the closer months came down more than in the far off months. Why wouldn’t that happen the same way if prices decline because supply increased?
Thanks