CFA 2009 Mock AM, Q9, Part B Part (i) When they calculate the revised forward rate, why is this the amount “owned”? I get why you would “owe” the 1.63 CAD because that’s what you have to pay at expiration to get your Euros, but I can’t get my head around the other side. Also, do we always use PV (inflows) - PV (outflows) for forwards (part i), but never for options (part ii)? Thanks in advance.