Hi everyone,
Would appreciate some clarification here please
Economics book, P349 Question 2…
It says the absolute cost of the hedge is 2.5% and the expected depreciation of the foreign currency is 2.2%, it recommends not to hedge because we would be locking in the higher deprecation of 2.5%
However, can someone please explain… if we are long the foreign currency and need to sell it forward, then why wouldn’t we want to lock in the bigger deprecation with the hedge?
Seems like because its trading at a forward discount, we want to sell at the higher of the two numbers?
confusing. Thanks.