Hi,
I am doing the 2015 Level II Mock exam and Im struggling with the following.
Exercise 31" Using the spot rate shown in Exhibit 1, on 1 April 2013, the market value of the currency swap described in Alternative 1 (its a 12 moth fixed to fixed currency) from POL’s perspective is closes to":
You calculate the Market value to POL as PV of payments received - PV of payments made.
Exercise 32: " Assume POL and IIG enter into the IRSwap descirbed in Alternative 1, and the rates shown in Exhibit 1 materialize as projected. On 1 April 2014, the market value to POL of the final exchange payments is":
My issue is that for exercise 31 you do not exchange the currencies using the predcited exchange rate in 12 months, but for exercise 32 you do.
Why is it so?