Ok, say we’re using the temporal method and the local currency in increasing relative to the functional currency. Monetary assets - monetary liabilities for current year is -1,000LC. However, the previous year the difference was -1,500, so there has been a change in exposure of +500.
In the above, will the translation gain be negative (as we have a negative BS exposure this year) or positive (because the change in exposure is positive)?
For the current rate method, if there’s positive exposure but the LC has declined, will there be a negative CTA? I read on another discussion (2009) that the CTA will always be positive if there’s a positive exposure, never mind the direction of the FX rate.