So there is this statement given in CFAI text in Reading #38 pg 297
“The debt option analogy explains why risky debt is less valuable than riskless debt. The difference in value is equal to the short put option’s price. In essence, the debt holders lend the equity holders K dollars and simultaneously sell them an insurance policy for K dollars on the value of their assets. If the assets fall below K, the debt holders take the assets in exchange for their loan. This possibility creates the credit risk. ”
What I need to know is:
Which risky debt is the CFAI talking about? Is it the debt that the lenders/bondholders have lent to the equity holders?
Also what is the riskless debt here?
Please also explain the relation of the difference between the riskless and risky debt with the short option put’s price.