Hello people,

I have a question on how the debt to equity ratio is calculated in **Example 19, Reading 30** on Long lived assets in the CFA curriculum book. The question is about financial statement impact of Financial vs Operating Lease options.

In the Financial lease option, the total asset and liability at the start is recorded as **100,000**. The annual lease payment is **28,769** which reduces the lease liability at the end of first year to be **71,321 (100,000-28,769)**. So far so good. For the next year, the interest on the remaining liability is calculated at **10%** and is equal to **7,132**.

To calculate the debt, the total liability is calculated as **100,000 + 71,321 + 7132 = 178,453**. Why is this? Shouldn’t the total liability be 71,321 because a portion of it has been already paid?

Thanks in advance,

Cheers!