For some reason, I always get tripped up conceptually when it comes to Derivatives…
I get the math\formulas behind Delta hedging, but I just don’t quite understand how the underlying security is subsequently hedged against movements in stock price.
I’ll illustrate with an example - Let’s say John Doe has a $10 million portfolio of Stock X. Stock X currently trades at $50\share and there are European call options for the stock with a Delta of .5977.
To neutralize John’s equity position in stock X from changes in the stock price of X, he would need to sell 334,616 of the Eurpoean call options (I only know this because of the formula -> ($10 mil divided by $50/share)(1/.5977)).
I just can’t wrap my mind around this from a logical standpoint. My thinking is, if you write a bunch of calls, you’re still going to be susceptible to company X’s stock price decreasing significantlly or going to $0. Conversely, if you sell so many calls to the point where the premiums bring in more than the portfolio value of stock X, you will be susceptible to significant price increases (because you would consequently be writing some uncovered calls)
If someone could briefly explain what I’m missing (I’m sure I’m missing something), it would be greatly appreciated!