Derivative Put call Parity

I know formula of put call parity. Could anyone help explain how OTM call is equal to ITM put using put call parity?

It isn’t.

I wanted to understand this statement "Because put-call parity is seen to hold, an increase in the prices of OTM (i.e., high strike price) call options will be accompanied by an increase in the prices of high strike price put options (i.e., ITM puts). I understand in put call parity an increase in call price is followed by pull price but how to connect with OTM call and ITM puts?

If the strike price is greater than the spot price, then a call with that strike will be out of the money and a put with that strike will be in the money. If the price of a call with a strike of X increases while the spot price and the risk-free rate remain unchanged, then put-call parity says that the price of a put with the same strike will have to increase the same amount.

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Understood. Thank you.

My pleasure.