Guys, question:
I’ve noticed that there are some present value formulas that show up differently. For instance, when we discount cash flows using DCF we us the factor 1/(1+r)^n while in the present value formula used for the currency forward value before expiration we use:
1 / (1 + R(days/360)) in the denominator
Is there a reason for this difference?
Thanks.
Because I belive currency forwards are usually less then a year so you have to get fraction of annual interest rate for that period … while other DCF flows you are discounting years of cash flows.
The difference is that one is using effective interest rates while the other is using nominal interest rates. I wrote an article on this; maybe it’ll be of some help: http://financialexamhelp123.com/nominal-vs-effective-interest-rates/.