Discount factor in swaps

Hi everyone, I’m confused on little things now. Maybe I just need a knowledge refresh.

Before the reading about swaps, I think when it comes to PV calculation, I always discount the CF like this:

FutureCF/[(1+AnnualizedInterestRate)^T], where T can be between 0 and 1 — maybe I’m wrong here?

But when doing PV in swaps, the way is FutureCF/(1+AnnualizedInterestRate x T/360), where 0

Just suddently realized this, and I suspect that the first way of discounting is right. If it’s wrong, can anyone tell the the right way.

Please feel free to correct me. Thanks.

swaps are based on LIBOR which is discounted in the way as (1+AnnualizedInterestRate x T/360)

it is an accepted convention.

Thanks!

A better way to think of it is that LIBOR rates are annual, nominal rates, not annual _ effective _ rates. So when they give you a 60-day (annual, nominal) LIBOR rate of 4.5%, the effective, 60-day rate is 4.5% × (60/360) = 0.75%; you will divide by (1 + 0.75%) = 1.0075. When they give you a 3-year (annual, nominal) LIBOR rate of 6.2%, the effective, 3-year rate is 6.2% × (1080/360) = 18.6%; you will divide by (1 + 18.6%) = 1.186.

EURIBOR works the same way: the rates are annual, nominal rates.