Can someone explain this question to me? I tried rearranging the Put-Call-Forward Parity and got B (C-P = F/(1+rf)T - X/(1+rf)T) , but A is the correct answer.
Q. Under put–call–forward parity, which of the following transactions is risk free?
A. Short call, long put, long forward contract, long risk-free bond
B. Long call, short put, long forward contract, short risk-free bond
C. Long call, long put, short forward contract, short risk-free bond
Can someone please explain me the answer for this question, I tried to understand the same from 2-3 CFA aspirates, but honestly they are not able to explain me the reasoning. I would be thankful if someone can please help me in understanding the concept behind this.