Duration FI

Which of the following statements regarding Macaulay duration is correct?

  1. For a given coupon rate, Macaulay duration can be lower for a long-term discount bond than for a short-term discount bond.
  2. For a given time to maturity and yield to maturity, Macaulay duration is lower for a zero-coupon bond than for a low-coupon bond trading at a discount.
  3. For a given time to maturity and yield to maturity, Macaulay duration is lower for a low-coupon bond trading at a discount than for a high-coupon bond trading at a premium.

Answer is A
but i didn’t understand how, Higher the maturity higher is the duration right?

Think of the other thing that can change - YTM

McD - weighted average time to receipt of cash flows (Edit corrected)

Think of 20 year 10% coupon bond with YTM of 20%. Final payment has low weight as it is a long way of and heaviliy discounted. Initial coupons have a much higher weighting.(For ref McD = 6.2)

Now think of 18 10% coupon year bond with YTM 0f 1%. Final payment has a much higher weight due to low discount rate. More balance in weighting of cash flows (For ref McD = 12.1)

So for discount bond the theory HIGHER MATURITY- HIGHER DURATION does not hold?

Generally it does but you can come up with scenarios where it does not.

okay, but this gets confusing

With all due respect, this isn’t correct.

Macaulay duration is the weighted average time to receipt of cash flows; it’s not a weighted average of the PVs of the cash flows. The PVs of the cash flows are the weights.

Thank - laziness on my part. I have editted the comment.