(To provide some context: this is from LOS 18.a and this situation is mentioned in a “professors note” on p.35 of Schweser book 2.)
I understand that the net income of a capitalizing firm will be lower in subsequent years compared to an expensing firm in most circumstances. It’s simple.
However I’ve read that for firms in an expansion phase - capitalizing expenditures may result in higher net income over “many” subsequent periods compared to an expensing firm (because the amount of depreciation from previously capitalized expenditures is less than the amount of additional costs being newly capitalized).
I feel like this concept may be simple but I cannot see it for myself, and therefore I am confused. I cannot imagine how the net income of a capitalizing firm could possibly be higher than that of an identical expensing firm over “X” subsequent number of years, as the capitalizing firms income statement includes depreciation/amortization while the expensing firm does not.
What am I missing?! Thanks in advance!!