An active investor enters a duration-neutral yield curve flattening trade that combines 2-year
and 10-year Treasury positions. Under which of the following yield curve scenarios would you expect the investor to realize the greatest portfolio gain?
A Bear flattening
B Bull flattening
C Yield curve inversion
I didn’t understand the answer key when it says the 2 year YTM for bear steepening will be CONSTANT and the 2 year YTM for bull steepening will be UNCHANGED.
Why are they constant or unchanged? In the Bear situation, shouldn’t there be a portfolio loss of a smaller degree given a smaller rise in S/T rates relative to LT // in the Bull situation, shouldn’t there be a small portfolio gain given a smaller drop in S/T rates relative to LT? Thanks!