EQ Method calc

If we are trying to calculate Company’s A’s contribtuion to company’s B’s net earnings (company A is the investment) using the equity method, why do we subtract out the amortization of the excess purchase price from the intial aquisition? Makes intuitive sense to me that we get x% of the company’s net income (since we own x% of said company), but why then subtract that amortization?

Thanks!

you first allocate ant excess paid to capital equipment and the like. next year, etc., you amortize that excess for the reason you depreciate.

If you allocate some of the excess price to depreciable/amortizable assets, then you depreciate/amortize that excess price.

If you allocate it to nondepreciable assets (e.g., land), or to goodwill, you don’t depreciate it.